The Revised Standard Bible caused a controversy when it translated Isaiah 7:14 using the phrase "young woman" instead of "virgin", and this was believed to be a covert attack on the Virgin Birth, and to this day, many Evangelicals refuse to use the RSV or the NRSV bibles because of this verse alone. Raymond E. Brown said that Isaiah 7:14 has become a litmus tests for bible translations, such that any bible that does not translate Isaiah 7:14 with the word "virgin" is suspect and this is a tragedy for many reasons. The first is that academic theology primarily uses the NRSV for English translations and has caused Evangelicals to distrust any theologian who uses NRSV (or RSV) and therefore has caused evangelicals to distance themselves from credible theology. The second is that this litmus tests indicates that evangelicals prefer bible translations that are biased towards their ideologies. All bible translations are ultimately commentaries upon the original sources, so none are free from bias (and this is unavoidable), however it is deceptive to intentionally translate a bible contrary to its sources to make it align with one's own agendas, especially when biased bibles are toted as the only correct translation and used for subversive measures to attack those who do not use a specific english translation. Using Isaiah 7:14 as a litmus test for rejecting the RSV, NRSV, NJB or any bible translation that uses the phrase "young women" instead of "virgin" may be symptomatic of a cultic and biased approach to theology and the bible.
In The Virginal Conception and Bodily Resurrection of Jesus, Raymond E. Brown explains that Isaiah 7:14 has become a biblical litmus test for orthodoxy, such that any English bible that does not say Isaiah 7:14 is suspect, as well as any church, theologian or Christian who prefers the NRSV, RSV, or NJB is wolf in sheep's clothing:
In Protestantism the question of the virginal conception has been debated for a long time. In some quarters it has been settled with a negative response about historicity, a response occasionally accompanied with a perceptive hesitancy that the negation threatens a symbolism touching on the mystery of Christ. In other quarters an affirmative answer remains one of the essential criteria of orthodoxy, so that English Bibles which do not carry the word "virgin' in Isa 7:14 are suspect. In still other quarters the subject is discreetly avoided, except perhaps by a nervous examination board testing a candidate's doctrinal suitability for the ministry. since the denial of the virginal conception was initiated by the rationalists, there remains a certain suspicion about those who hesitate to evaluate it as a historical fact. And so it may well be that a reconsidering of the evidence will be of utility in the broad span of Protestantism. [1]
Raymond E. Brown argues that "young woman" is the correct translation of Isaiah 7:14, because the Hebrew manuscripts for this verse use the word for "young woman" and not "virgin". When the Hebrew bible was translated into Greek (i.e. Septuagint / LXX), the Greek translators chose the term "virgin" (παρθένος) to represent the Hebrew word for "young woman" (`almah), and this changed the meaning of Isaiah 7:14 from "young woman" to "virgin". The New Testament was written in Greek, and used the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible when citing the Old Testament. When the New Testament writers saw the word "virgin" in the Septuagint supported the Virgin Birth, the Greek translation was cited (c.f. Matt 1:23; Luke 1:31,34). Brown argues that Isaiah was written 700 years before the New Testament, and so Isaiah knew nothing about the Virgin Birth. Only after the New Testament writers cited the Greek translation of Isaiah 7:14, did that verse take on new meaning, and was then used to support the Virgin Birth. Brown says a similar situation has happened in Hosea, and Hosea 6:2 read in isolation within its original context, it does not communicate anything about the duration of Jesus in the tomb, and it gained this meaning, only after the authors of the New Testament employed it in their writings.
The OT authors did not foresee in detail the life of Jesus of Nazareth. Those who are called OT prophets were concerned with their own times and not with the distant future about which they could speak only in the vaguest way. Therefore, whether they know it or not, when the NT authors see prophecy fulfilled in Jesus, they are going beyond the vision of the OT authors [footnote #12: "The classic apologetic argument from prophecy has had to be reinterpreted in the light of modern biblical criticism. It is no longer primarily a question of the exact fulfillment of divinely guided foreknowledge; it is much more a question of the culmination of a divine plan that could only be detected through hindsight."].
Let us take, for instance, Isa 7:14: "A young woman shall be [or is] with child and shall bear a son and shall call him Immanuel." The prophet was referring to the birth of a child taking place some seven hundred years before Jesus' time, a child whose coming into the world was a sign of the continuance of the royal Davidic line. Because Matthew regarded Jesus as the completion of the royal Davidic line, and because he read the passage in a Greek translation of Isaiah which spoke of a "virgin" (as distinct from the Hebrew which has only "young woman"), Matthew saw the applicability of this text to the birth of Jesus from the Virgin Mary at Bethlehem. It was a proof for Matthew who had an insight as to how Jesus' birth fulfilled God's plan; but, so far as we can tell, Isaiah knew nothing or foresaw nothing about Jesus' birth. Similarly, Hosea 6:2, "After two days he will revive us; on the third day he will raise us up," in the prophet's mind had nothing to do with the resurrection of Jesus. The likeness to the NT theme of the resurrection of Jesus on the third day (1 Cor 15:4) may have arisen because the NT authors deliberately phrased their remembrance of the resurrection in the language of Hosea. [2]
Raymond E. Brown makes a very important point that regardless of whether Isaiah 7:14 is translated with the phrase "young woman" or "virgin", neither of these terms fundamentally prove that Isaiah 7:14 knew anything about the Virgin Birth. If Isaiah 7:14 is translated as "virgin", this may simply mean that the woman was a virgin before she conceived, and does not teach anything about an immaculate conception or perpetual virginity of Mary.
Hellenistic Judaism has seemed a more fertile field for search because Matthew makes reference to the Greek (LXX) text of Isa 7:14, "The virgin shall conceive." But we have no evidence that in Alexandria Judaism the LXX of Isa 7:14 was understood to predict a virginal conception, since it need mean no more than that the girl who is now a virgin will ultimately conceive (in a natural way). Moreover, it is dubious that Isa 7:14 played any major role in shaping the Lucan account of the virginal conception. [3]
Translations of Isaiah 7:14
- New Revised Standard Bible (Isaiah 7:14 RSV): "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel."
- Revised Standard Bible (Isaiah 7:14 RSV): "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, a young woman shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Imman′u-el."
- New Jerusalem Bible (Isaiah 7:14 NJB): "The Lord will give you a sign in any case: It is this: the young woman is with child and will give birth to a son whom she will call Immanuel."
- New International Version (Isaiah 7:14 NIV): "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel."
- King James Version (Isaiah 7:14 KJV): "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."
- English Standard Version (Isaiah 7:14 ESV): "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."
Sources:
- Raymond E. Brown, The Virginal Conception and Bodily Resurrection of Jesus, Chapman, 1974. p. 22
- Ibid. pp. 15-16.
- Ibid. p. 64.
Related: Isaiah 7:14, LXX, NJB, NRSV, R. E. Brown, Raymond E. Brown, RSV, Septuagint, The Virginal Conception and Bodily Resurrection of Jesus, Virgin Birth
April 21st, 2020 - 00:11
I have a few issues with this. Firstly I think that as Christians we need to be reading the Old Testament with a focus on Christ, how it prefigures and relates to Christs mission. Secondly as the Seputagint was the version of the Old Testament used by the apostles and the Church Fathers it seems clear that “virgin” is the correct translation as that is how they understood the verse.
Most importantly though I think you’re implicitly denying the inspiration of scripture with the kind of lens you’re using to view it.
“The OT authors did not foresee in detail the life of Jesus of Nazareth. Those who are called OT prophets were concerned with their own times and not with the distant future about which they could speak only in the vaguest way. Therefore, whether they know it or not, when the NT authors see prophecy fulfilled in Jesus, they are going beyond the vision of the OT authors”
This to me seems like a profoundly unchristian way to read scripture, certainly none of the Church Fathers would agree with this. Even if you think that the OT authors had no insight into the coming new covenant the author of scripture and source of inspiration of God. It is God who draws these allusions to the coming new covenant and by understanding God as the author we can see that “virgin” is, once again, the correct translation as it is noted in scripture as referring to the birth of Christ. To claim that it doesn’t really mean virgin or can be interpreted in other ways is essentially saying that the apostle Matthew was not inspired by God when writing his gospel and erred.
We need to be careful. Secular hermeneutics can be interesting but they’re definitely not how a Christian should be reading scripture. Scripture is not a collection of various texts written throughout history by individuals addressing their times. It is a narrative, crafted by God using people who are inspired in order to reveal Gods nature and validate Christs claim to being Messiah.
When you read the scriptures like Bart Ehrman, you eventually become agnostic like Bart Ehrman. It would be better to read scripture like Augustine or Chrysostom instead. The historical critical method is a very poor exegetical methodology for Christians.
July 4th, 2020 - 06:15
You raise some good points , in particular regarding considering the outcome of the sources which are shaping the lens through which you view Scripture.
Regarding a Christian reading of Scripture, I feel it is unwise to approach a passage primarily as it relates to Jesus. Surely it is better to first understand something in the context in which it occurred, as the initial audience would have understood it. Only then, do we consider how this truth may point to something else. I’m sure you are familiar with the 4 methods of interpretation – all are good but as a rule the allegory shouldn’t contradict the literal. Just a thought 😃
July 30th, 2022 - 07:26
Your confirmation bias interferes with proper translation. Whether or not one believes in a virgin birth does prevent that person from following the precepts taught by Jesus. It is that alone that defines what it means to be a Christian.
September 12th, 2021 - 13:35
The entirety of Christianity hangs on several key occurrences or fulfillment of prophecy.
The Virgin Birth is one of those keys.
The discussion is moot if Christ Jesus were not born of a virgin. That’s what makes Him “Christ.”
This is a clear, Satanic doctrinal attack against the very foundation of Christianity. If Jesus wasn’t born of a virgin….regardless of what any individual passage says……then we are doomed and there is no salvation. The doctrine of soteriology is clear; payment for sin had to be made by a sinless man. If Jesus were the product of a natural birth, then Adam would be His father, and He would be subject to the curse of the sin nature, and therefore, couldn’t be the “propitiation” of our sins.
If Jesus wasn’t born of a virgin, then Christianity is just another religion…..at best. If Jesus wasn’t born or a virgin, then I am throwing away my Bible and will live a life to fulfill the lust of my flesh, since that is all there is. I cannot believe that in the 21st century, this is still a legitimate discussion among those that would call themselves “Christians.”
Obviously….due to the sin nature…… ignorance and stupidity abound in every age.
August 7th, 2022 - 21:52
Throw away your Bible and go fulfill the lusts of your flesh, then, since that all there is…
August 7th, 2022 - 22:02
Throw away your Bible and go fulfill the lusts of your flesh, then, since that’s all there is…
October 25th, 2022 - 17:11
Christianity without the virgin birth narrative is very possible. The Virgin Birth played no part in Paul’s theology – he never mentions it nor provides any hint that he was even aware of the virgin birth narrative. It’s not present in the earliest of the canonized gospels, Mark, nor the last, John. Was the author of Mark aware of the virgin birth story but choose to leave it out? That seems highly unlikely. It’s more likely the author (or authors) was not aware of the story – that the virgin birth narrative wasn’t created until after Mark was written.
But what does that really change in terms of Jesus’ message?
May 24th, 2023 - 08:49
The virgin birth one could argue is not required and the fact Jesus lived in a body from Eve’s and Adam’s line, that is the same sinful flesh we all have, but did not sin is surely a greater Miricale that being given a special body with no genetics from Adam or Eve. Even if his genetics were from Eve only, plus a Y chromosome from somewhere, they would still be sinful in terms of the flesh inherited from the her male and female predecessors. There is nothing special about the female seed, as quoted in Genesis and if it were so if science one day cloned a woman using her eggs, I do think that would make her sinless. Following your argument of sinful flesh would mean all aborted children, premature deaths, child deaths would go to hell, since they are born of Adam’s sinful line. One important question is if any of us were born by a virgin conception would be sinless? I do not think so, we would still fall. But if Jesus was born into our sinful flesh, would he fall? I think not, he would still lead a sinless life, that is the power of his divinity. Your arguments suggests that he is not great enough to overcome our sinful flesh so had to have hand up by being born of a virgin in sinless flesh. This advantage means his act of salvation has less inherent risks then our births, it was privilege that saw him through. That reduces the meaning of the sacrifice, it was not equal, he was given advantages over us. No, he overcome sin from the same base as us and that is what makes its so wonderful.
January 9th, 2022 - 10:47
I believe that a virgin is something a man holds in material value, something to be conquered as a trophy. Spiritual virginity speaks to the heart, Gods ways. Where do you find such value in a man’s virginity? Christ is continually reminding us to see through spiritual lenses. Isn’t Mary and Jesus more human and approachable as a young women? God living among us? One of us to wage battles against earthly things? Could Jesus as a Samaritin or Roman be the true union between Jew and Gentile? Are we really understanding the scriptures as the churches empty more and more, and religion sticks to its old ways? I think its well over due for the church to get out of the drama and to be awakened by a real cast of historical figures. This makes the narrative all the more of value and impactful. He has taken the lowest of those and raised them up. We know deep down that there are real problems with how we have been informed or interpreted the scriptures. So do others… Do we lie to ourselves and others in order to keep things as they are; scriptures, hymns, prayers, etc. with the words Virgin?
May 24th, 2023 - 09:16
Great point and well said!
March 28th, 2022 - 19:21
The only point of agreement I find with this article is its reference to Hos 6:2. Others have already commented well on the virgin/young woman issue. Hos 6:2, however, has long been incorrectly shoehorned into Christ’s 3 days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth. Hosea speaks of a revival of ‘us’ not ‘him’. Throughout his book, Hosea is speaking primarily to Ephraim about a yet future event, the same also referenced in Isa 17, Hos 13:8, Dan 7:4-5. We know this is future because when Ephraim, along with the other nine tribes of the House of Israel, were conquered by the Assyrians in ~721 BC there was no revival after two days, years or millennia.
In this event the great fortress of Ephraim is irrevocably broken at the same time Damascus is nuked to ashes. After this horrific loss, Ephraim’s eyes are opened to his idolatry and he returns to his Maker. The two days Hosea speaks of are two years of dire hardship in the aftermath of that holocaust followed by a great revival in the third year. It is such a dramatic rescue and revival from a mortal wound that it will cause the world to marvel. Spoiler alert: Ephraim is none other than the founding peoples of the great end time Eagle and these events begin no later than spring 2024.
May 24th, 2023 - 09:27
Sadly he only spent two nights, one day and two parts of a day. Good Friday night, Saturday night and was up Sunday morning. In terms of time say buried 6.00 pm on Friday it would be 24 hours to Saturday 6.00 pm and then 12 hours to say Sunday morning 6.00 am. So only 36 hours half of 24 x3=72!! Even taking into account the Jewish systems that a day began when the Sunset so after 6.00pm on Friday it was Saturday you still get only two nights and then the whole and two parts of a day(Sunday morning and the time between death and burial)! Taking the bible literally is dangerous game.
May 26th, 2023 - 05:12
When Jesus said, “for just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the sea monster, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” (Matthew 12:40), the word for “heart” is “kardia”. Of the 150 times it is used in the New Testament, it is never translated to mean inside of something. Namely, as many believe, Jesus in the tomb.
The true definition is “in a psychological sense, the seat of man’s collective energies, the focus of personal life, the seat of the rational as well as the emotional and volitional elements in human life, hence that wherein lies the moral and religious condition of the man”.
The true meaning of ‘heart of the earth’ is that the heart of the earth was evil. Jesus was captured into the heart of the earth on Thursday night. There’s the 3rd night. Thursday, Friday, and Saturday. Three days, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday morning.
April 13th, 2022 - 03:43
Here is a quote from Justin Martyr on the differences between the Septuagint and other Old Testament texts.
But you [Jews] and your teachers venture to declare that in the prophecy of Isaiah it does not say “Behold, the virgin will conceive,” but, “Behold, the young woman will conceive, and bear a son.” Furthermore, you explain the prophecy as if [it referred] to Hezekiah, who was your king. Therefore, I will endeavor to discuss shortly this point in opposition to you.
Ante Nicene Fathers
April 13th, 2022 - 04:09
A quote from Tertullian on Isaiah 7:14
You Jews have the audacity to lie, as if the Scriptures actually said “a young female” was to conceive and bring forth, rather than “a virgin.”
You are refuted even by the fact that something that is a daily occurrence–the pregnancy and giving birth of a young female–cannot possibly be anything of a sign.
Justin Martyr
Hear again how Isaiah in express words foretold that He would be born of a virgin.
Irenaeus
The Lord Himself did save us, giving us the token of the virgin. But this was not as some allege–who presume to expound the Scripture as: “Behold, a young woman will conceive, and bring forth a son.” For this is as Theodotion the Ephesian has translated it, and Aquila of Pontus–both of whom are Jewish proselytes.
The Ebionites, following these men, assert that He was begotten by Joseph.
Ante Nicene Fathers
June 28th, 2022 - 10:52
I am truly informed by the references to Tertullian, Irenaeus, and Justin Martyr. I find the one from Tertullian apt and amusing. What I find is that modernists tend to pick and choose what is possible in this world. We must, of course, use reason but correct conclusion depends upon correct premises. They rule out the possibility of miracles. What is the whole world, if not a miracle? Either believe in a God who can create this world if you are a believer in the bible or write your own book. There is no valid spectrum of belief between the two.
July 3rd, 2022 - 19:02
How would ‘the Lord himself give us a sign’ if the sign were merely a young woman giving birth, an every day occurrence? I see this carefully contrived article as a satanic attack on Christianity: negate the Virgin birth and you negate Jesus Himself. Good luck with that one. Even if the original Hebrew was translated “young woman”, why would the Septaguint change that to “virgin” 300 years before the birth of Christ? Perhaps they themselves were inspired to such a change… if it, indeed, it even was one. Perhaps “young woman” and “virgin” were interchangeable terms as understood by the original Hebrew writers. In any case, an article such as this seeks to tear down, not build up, Jesus Christ. And we all know what He said about that.
September 12th, 2022 - 02:53
God have mercy… Heresy.
September 22nd, 2022 - 22:50
woman conceiving is not a big thing
1.it is a Sign .what is the definition of sign ? Refer to Carpenters statement regarding Jonah
2.Air Pollination cannot take place in woman to make her pregnant, in certain plants that is possible
3.Holy Quran says Messenger Gabriel brought word from Allah and by breathing into her loins ,she conceived.
4.Holy Quran affirms that Mary was unpolluted
In conclusion it is confirmed that virgin Mary became pregnant by Word. Apply your mind.
February 10th, 2023 - 01:42
Q: “How would ‘the Lord himself give us a sign’ if the sign were merely a young woman giving birth, an every day occurrence?”
A: The problem with this verse is that it doesn’t suggest a Messiah of any kind, whether crucified or elevated. Isaiah is speaking to a king of his time period, rather than to a whole host of Israel about a crucified messiah. In verses 4–9, Isaiah is told by God to offer consolation to the king Ahaz over the controversy of an invasion. And in the next verses (10–14), Isaiah as the divine mediator asks the king for a sign that God is with him, but the king refuses, so then, Isaiah proclaims that a young woman will conceive a child, and figuratively render it as Immanuel (since it is a sign that God is with them; a theophoric name if you will). Now the miraculous sign is described as “For before the boy knows enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be abandoned” (verse 16). In the next chapter, “[3] So I approached the prophetess, and she conceived and gave birth to a son. Then the Lord said to me, “Name him Maher-shalal-hash-baz; [4] for before the boy knows how to cry out ‘My father’ or ‘My mother,’ the wealth of Damascus and the spoils of Samaria will be carried away before the king of Assyria” (Isaiah 8:3–4). Neither Jesus, nor the child are literally named Immanuel, but contextually, the child born in front of Isaiah is rightfully the sign given to the king. Even Isaiah says that he and his offspring are for signs and wonders in Israel (cf. 8:18). The name Immanuel doesn’t indicate that the child will be divine, but that the sign by means of his birth demonstrates that God is on Israel’s side.
Q: “Secondly as the Seputagint was the version of the Old Testament used by the apostles and the Church Fathers it seems clear that “virgin” is the correct translation as that is how they understood the verse.”
A: But this doesn’t refute the original context of almah being used. I think this verse in the LXX best serves as a typology for Christ rather than as a historical prophecy, and even by way of a loose translation that the Gospel writers take advantage of; in fact, even the LXX renders Dinah in Genesis as a virgin despite the fact she was raped before (Gen. 34.2-3). This wasn’t to deceive readers unfamiliar with the Old Testament, but to plainly demonstrate the spiritual reading.
Q: “This is a clear, Satanic doctrinal attack against the very foundation of Christianity. If Jesus wasn’t born of a virgin….regardless of what any individual passage says……then we are doomed and there is no salvation. The doctrine of soteriology is clear; payment for sin had to be made by a sinless man. If Jesus were the product of a natural birth, then Adam would be His father, and He would be subject to the curse of the sin nature, and therefore, couldn’t be the “propitiation” of our sins.”
A: It is very ignorant to suggest that it is satanic to assume that Jesus isn’t in the contextual reading of the Bible, because this ultimately comes from a fundamentalist or face-value narrative. I don’t think a natural birth would have prevented Jesus from being sinless; there is no sin nature that one must derive from their parental figures, especially when Christians today wrongly believe that He became ontological sin. There are other reasons to believe in Jesus: sapient philosophy, mystical experience, the historical impact of the early church, and Jesus’ & Paul’s prediction over the desolation of Jerusalem confirmed by historical records.
P: “This to me seems like a profoundly unchristian way to read scripture, certainly none of the Church Fathers would agree with this. Even if you think that the OT authors had no insight into the coming new covenant the author of scripture and source of inspiration of God…To claim that it doesn’t really mean virgin or can be interpreted in other ways is essentially saying that the apostle Matthew was not inspired by God when writing his gospel and erred.”
A: There are many Church Fathers that disagree with this statement, as Origen would say, “Seeing none of these things visibly happening in the sojourn of him believed by us to be Christ, they [in this case, the Jews who rejected Christ] did not accept our Lord Jesus, but they crucified him as having improperly called himself Christ” (Princ. 4.2.1). As well as Augustine admits, “Provided, therefore, that each of us tries as best he can to understand in the Holy Scriptures what the writer meant by them, what harm is there if a reader believes what you, the Light of all truthful minds, show him to be the true meaning? It may not even be the meaning which the writer had in mind, and yet he too saw in them a true meaning, different though it may have been from this” (Confessions XII.18). Irenaeus even concedes to this point, “But Jeremiah also says, In the last days they shall understand these things. (cf. Jeremiah 23:20) For every prophecy, before its fulfillment, is to men [full of] enigmas and ambiguities. But when the time has arrived, and the prediction has come to pass, then the prophecies have a clear and certain exposition. And for this reason, indeed, when at this present time the law is read to the Jews, it is like a fable; for they do not possess the explanation of all things pertaining to the advent of the Son of God, which took place in human nature; but when it is read by the Christians, it is a treasure, hid indeed in a field, but brought to light by the cross of Christ,…” (Against Heresies: Book IV.26.1). Matthew doesn’t need the true contextual reading to be inspired, but he confers the true prophetic and philosophical reading for the Isaiah verse.